In March of 2005 I was told that I had HPV which had cause pre cancerous cells. I had a biopsey and they were removed. I did the whole procedure and not once did they imply that I had warts from it. In August of 07 I met who is now my life long partner (Paul) and we had unprotected sex on a regular basis. About a year later Paul believes that he has warts on his penis and was very unhappy with me, which caused us to seperate for a while. I told him that i did not have warts so how is this possible that I had given them to him? Is it possible if someone does not have warts from HPV to give them to someone else? Did I do this to him by being so uneducated about this all? Also, I am just curious.... Paul had said that he had seen a doctor who just glaced at it and said "yes you do, but dont worry to much about it because it is not that bad." does this sound right? Arent there tests the doctor has to do you be sure of it? The doctore gave him the acid like cream. Is there such a thing? I just need to know.... need some answers. Please help. I know we have to go to a doctor and these plans we will uphold, however the only appointment open is in almost three weeks. I would like some answers now to calm my completly wrenched stomache. Thank you!