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Does having the MTHFR c677T genetic mutation make a person more susceptible to cancer?

Posted by nick

My question based off of this situation: Would a person with the MTHFR c677T genetic mutation who had pulmonary embolisms be justified in assuming that thier embolisms were caused by malignant polyps (possibly in the colon or GI track) releasing hormones/enzymes that act as a catalyst for blood coagulation and that the polyps themselves were caused by the mutation?
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